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Sun, 14 Sep 2003
Could anyone who knows a little about random walks lend me a hand? I've been thinking about the Gambler's Ruin, trying to figure out why the probabilities of winning are what they are. I believe it is equivalent to the following random walk problem:
Given a finite one-dimensional ladder with n rungs r_0 .. r_n, starting at rung s, at each each time t the probability of going up one rung is p, and that of going down one rung 1-p. The game ends when you reach the top or the bottom rung, so what is the probability of hitting the top of the ladder, as a function of n and s?
I can write the recurrence:
where R_t is the rung you're at at time t, which might be helpful, but I'm also not clear how to solve it. In general this seems like a pretty basic random walk question, so... little help, please?
(In terms of the Gambler's Ruin problem, tacit in the above formulation is the assumption that, in flipping the coin, you first choose a pile with equal probability, and then flip a coin from that pile—as opposed to picking a coin to flip independently of which pile it's in. The Mathworld page doesn't specify how the coin to be flipped is chosen, but it seems like it matters, so that's my simplifying assumption.)
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